Eugene Wrayburn wrote:Son of Mathonwy wrote:Eugene Wrayburn wrote:1. What possible relevance is it as to whether or not Israel was involved in teaching this "technique"?
2. What evidence is there for the assertion of a fact that Israel taught the "technique"?
3. Is it conceivable that the person making or endorsing the claim is unaware of the various conspiracies that surround the Jews (or Soros who appears to wear most of the blame nowadays) having orchestrated the the protests or being in charge of the police or subjugation of black people?
In my view if it is a claim without either evidence or relevance and knowing that these conspiracy theories exist - and I'd find it hard to believe that anyone who had more than dipped their toe into left twitter was unaware - then it's anti-semitic.
From Starmer's position it doesn't actually matter whether RLB knew about the various conspiracy theories. Given the context of Labour's recent history, retweeting anything that includes any sort of claim about Israel without thoroughly checking it and wondering about it is fucking cavalier at best and you cannot have people like that on the front bench. It's not like she's been expelled from the party.
PS It's not a fucking technique.
1. The origin of the method used to kill Floyd is surely relevant?
2. None specifically for neck-kneeling, only evidence that US police have been trained by Israel.
3. Yes. I don't doubt such things may exist but I'm not aware of them, I don't go out of my way to find them. Whether that's true of Peake or Long-Bailey, who knows?
In my view:
If a claim is true then it can be stated, and is not (on the face of it) indicative of any bias.
It follows that if someone honestly believes a claim (ie they believe they have evidence), then it's not a sign of bias to make the claim, even if the evidence turns out to be faulty. This is not the case if they are reckless regarding the truthfulness of the claim.
Knowingly (or recklessly) making a claim without reasonable evidence is wrong and, a priori, is a sign of bias against anyone criticised by the claim. This is especially the case if it is part of a pattern.
So Peake's claim may well mean she is biased against Israel (because she did not take care to check the claim). However, It doesn't follow that she is biased against Jewish people. And the existence of various conspiracy theories does not make Jews = Israel true. Otherwise it would be impossible to criticise Israel in a non-antisemitic way.
I wouldn't get hung up over the term "technique". What would you prefer, "method" maybe? Whatever you call it, it's vile, sometimes lethal and disproportionate in most circumstances outside of war.
1. It's only relevant if you think the issue is poor training rather than murder. It was murder. It is murder in an historical context of murder.
2. So no evidence. Literally fucking none.
Not every attack on Israel is an attack on Jews - the state of Israel has done some pretty appalling things, even before they were led by a kleptocratic autocrat. But pretty much every attack on Israel when they have nothing to do with the subject is. And even if it were not it would be beyond cretinous for a Labour front bencher at the moment to make such an attack or endorse it.
1. Poor training or murder (or poor training which led to murder - they are not mutually exclusive), either way it was the method used to end Floyd's life. Which makes the origin of the method relevant.
2. It's enough evidence to make the claim plausible, to make the content of the training worthy of investigation or open to the public. It's absolutely not evidence for the claim, and so the claim should not be made.
"pretty much every attack on Israel when they have nothing to do with the subject is [an attack on Jews]" is far too strong a statement - you need to justify it.
It's reasonable to say "most attacks on Israel when they have nothing to do with the subject show bias against Israel", because (for one immediate reason) I know I have to watch myself carefully in this regard. I'm well aware of the appalling things the state of Israel has done and continues to do, so my opinion of it is extremely low, and I
am in danger of showing bias against Israel (ie criticising it to a level which is unreasonable) for this reason.
But this is entirely separate from my relations with Jewish people. I'm friends with, I've studied with and worked with British and American Jews, and I can assure you I see them as entirely equal to everyone else I know, whatever their faith or lack of it, or nationality, or colour, gender or whatever. If I ever should overstep the mark and criticise Israel unfairly this is nothing to do with Jews in general. I'm sorry if some people might take it that way, but the connection between the two is in their minds, not mine.
This is true of me, and I think it's reasonable to assume I'm not unique.
To assume that bias against Israel is essentially the same as bias against Jews in general is to give Israel special treatment, which inhibits justifiable criticism.